What do you think and if so what are the implications of citing/interpreting classical works within the modern framework?
Are there interpretations you believe are the result time-specific sociological assumptions in gender theory, warfare, economics, or any other subject you want to discuss.
I was reading a pretty good article on Yaqeen Institute that suggested yes, they very much are.
You who believe, when you contract a debt for a stated term, put it down in writing…Call in two men as witnesses. If two men are not there, then call one man and two women out of those you approve as witnesses, so that if one of the two women should forget [or err][70] the other can remind her.[71]
Often times, premodern Qur’anic exegetes the likes of Fakhr al-Din al-Razi (d. 606 H) would explain this verse by asserting the biological or psychological inferiority of women. It is crucial to note, however, that the exegetes who made such assertions about the inherent deficiencies in women’s biology drew upon Ancient Greek physiology to substantiate their argument, rather than any scriptural quotes from Qur’an or hadith that speak on the physiological constitutions of women versus men. Thus, Al-Razi states, concerning 2: 282, “And the meaning is that forgetfulness predominates in the physiology of women due to the abundance of moisture and coldness in their physical constitutions.”[73] But it was Hippocrates (d. 377 BC) who concocted this notion, arguing that the female body contains excessive moisture and coldness (and menses being the time that excess moisture was expelled), while the male body is relatively healthier and superior due to heat and dryness.[74]
[link] [comments]
from Islam https://ift.tt/2J3Dc0P
No comments:
Post a Comment